You called me a theorist. The onus of proof is with you. Prove that my theory is false with a case that fulfils all requirements.
Show me an example where a woman (with the man’s biological children) who was living with a man at the time of the divorce hearing, at his house (which he bought before marriage), was given custody but asked to vacate the house and let the man enjoy his mansion. Avoid the temptation of bringing ownership issues because I’m asking about possession/usage of the house. I already know that the house is owned by the man by virtue of having bought it before marriage.
This is a very specific question so don’t give me generic answers or personal opinions. I’m waiting.