Isaiah 53:1-6. Written in past tense.

The crucifixion happened along time ago, someone died for our sins long before Jesus was born on earth.

Isaiah 53:1–6 (ESV): Who has believed what he has heard from us?
And to whom has the arm of the LORD been revealed?
2 For he grew up before him like a young plant,
and like a root out of dry ground;
he had no form or majesty that we should look at him,
and no beauty that we should desire him.
3 He was despised and rejected by men,
a man of sorrows and acquainted with grief;
and as one from whom men hide their faces
he was despised, and we esteemed him not.

  4 Surely he has borne our griefs 
  and carried our sorrows; 
  yet we esteemed him stricken, 
  smitten by God, and afflicted. 
  5 But he was pierced for our transgressions; 
  he was crushed for our iniquities; 
  upon him was the chastisement that brought us peace, 
  and with his wounds we are healed. 
  6 All we like sheep have gone astray; 
  we have turned—every one—to his own way; 
  and the LORD has laid on him 
  the iniquity of us all.

That is what I was saying in the other post on the issue of the Bible… Jesus was present from the beginning of the Bible and talked about indirectly in the Old Testament… On this Thread: How the bible was created - Religion, Spiritualism & Philosophy - Kenya Talk

The thing is, you guys are all interpreting Isaiah 53 from a Christian perspective. If you look at the context of that book, it is speaking about the jewish nation. The suffering servant is the jews, it is not Jesus.

Isaiah is talking/ writing of a past event, not of an event that will come

I’m lost here, so the suffering of the Jews people was courtesy of our transgressions, and that’s what brought peace to mankind, ama, what’s your understanding of verse 5 ?

This is what followers of Judaism claim:
“Isaiah 53:5 is a classic example of mistranslation: The verse does not say, “He was wounded for our transgressions and crushed for our iniquities,” which could convey the vicarious suffering ascribed to Jesus. Rather, the proper translation is: “He was wounded because of our transgressions, and crushed because of our iniquities.” This conveys that the Servant suffered as a result of the sinfulness of others – not the opposite as Christians contend – that the Servant suffered to atone for the sins of others.”

Isaiah 53:10 - Hebrew Bible.
God desired to oppress him and He afflicted him. If his soul would acknowledge guilt, he would see offspring and live long days, and God’s purpose would succeed in his hand.

ויהוָה חָפֵץ דַּכְּאוֹ הֶחֱלִי אִם תָּשִׂים אָשָׁם נַפְשׁוֹ יִרְאֶה זֶרַע יַאֲרִיךְ יָמִים וְחֵפֶץ יְהוָה בְּיָדוֹ יִצְלָח

Did Jesus have offspring?

I know but you must be new to the Bible… the language of prophecy is not always a direct one… The writers of prophetic events used very strange language and used even current leaders to prophesy…

Where was the Offspring Quoted in the Bible? Unless figuratively quoted from the spiritual perspective?

Translation is one of the problems with the Bible… the original Scriptures were in Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek… Now it is obvious that there are cases of mistranslation… However, it is still not clear what you mean by you suggestion… My understanding is that Because Adam sinned and therefore broke the relationship man had with God, Jesus came in order to re-establish this relationship… and therefore He died in order to atone for the sins of all mankind as long as they accept him as their saviour… John 3:16 "For God so loved the world, that he gave his only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life. " I might not be too good in grammar but your two interpretation mean the same… please, expound…

Please check out this link. It is a Jewish explanation of Isaiah 53.
Isaiah 53: The Suffering Servant - Aish.com

Let me go through this… I wish one can get such corrections on translations of the Bible in detail because, English itself has its own challenges as language

I have read it and it is a fact that it was written by Jews who by all means have rejected the existence of Jesus… and therefore the bias… They still believe that the Messiah never came and therefore will dispute such an interpretation… It is not written from a neutral point of view… Jews are still waiting for the Messiah… I have read it and it is obvious a Jewish interpretation meant to discredit Jesus as has always their view. For example they believe that he called himself God, yet He never called himself one in his worldly state as Son of Man… Else how could he die, and suffer yet He was God, He came as a man and should not be misinterpreted otherwise. After He rose again from the dead, and went to Heaven, he was no longer a man… and I cannot recall one verse He asked anybody to worship him as God. He used to talk about God who was obviously not him… so, this view is the obviously known justification to ignore Jesus: (Jesus explained himself that he never sinned by healing on Sabbath and if He did, prove it with an alternative from the Old testament Books of the Law, i.e. Leviticus, Deuteronomy, etc):
(9) He submitted his grave to evil people; and the wealthy submitted to his executions, for committing no crime, and with no deceit in his mouth.

וַיִּתֵּן אֶת רְשָׁעִים קִבְרוֹ וְאֶת עָשִׁיר בְּמתָיו על לא חָמָס עָשָׂה וְלא מִרְמָה בְּפִיו

Missionaries cite this verse as a claim that Jesus lived a sinless life, and was thus the Messiah. This is contradicted, however, by the Gospels themselves, who record that Jesus sinned by violating the Sabbath (John 9:16) and – by claiming to be God Himself – violating the grave prohibition against making any physical image of God (John 10:33, 14:9-10).

Throughout history, Jews were given the choice to “convert or die.” Yet as this verse describes, there was “no deceit in his mouth” – the loyal Jews refused to accept a pagan deity as their God. Rather than profane God’s Holy Name, they “submitted to the grave” – i.e. chose to die rather than renounce their faith. As such these Jews were often denied proper burial, discarded “to the grave as evil people.”

Further, wealthy Jews “submitted to his executions, for committing no crime” – killed so that wicked conquerors could confiscate their riches.

Do you believe Jesus is the messiah? If so, why? Which criteria did you use to establish he is the messiah because the Jews are in a better position to tell us who is/should be the messiah.

Yes. I do. I will post my supporting verses here. God did not create the world for the Jews only in as much as He Chose them as His special people, for a reason. Salvation is for mankind and one must read the Bible itself from Genesis in order to make determinations, and Jews were chosen several generations later after Adam. Jews continue to be God’s chosen people as far as I know and their roles continue to Revelation the Bible. Who was Jesus, in your opinion? A myth? I am not saying that there are not many instances of mistranslations and misinterpretations… but the quotations are from the Jewish fanatics who strongly believe that Jesus was a fake Messiah… and continue to believe so to date… Allow me time to prepare my defense… From the same Bible… and feel free to correct me… I am not perfect and neither are my sources, but I will use the Scriptures to support my views… And BTW let me also discuss about the Salvation of the Jews too for indeed it will happen at some point in the future since they clearly rejected him…

BTW if you are a student of Literature, you will realize that the Bible is not always literal and that there are many instances, a King is given 100% the roles of Satan/ the Devil and is dealt with with 100% precision the way Satan is dealt with at the end… All persons including Gentiles (Non Jews) had their salvation provided for here via John 3:16… or was this a myth/ mistranslation?

i have read the discussions in the web site and it is 100% obvious that it is a JEWISH controlled discussion with the bias towards Juadism… where Jesus was and is still a myth and inconsequential and it has the effect of making God, Jewish the same way Kikuyus have their own Ngai Mwene Nyaga, etc… which is really not wrong, but very myopic view of God who is the God of mankind… outside the box, in as much as Christians accept Jews as the chosen people, the Creator of Mankind cannot be put in a box and controlled, He is above all and is the one who created the Laws that we follow. In the New Testament, women were expected to shut up while in Church, yet the same God used an angel to speak in Balak and Balam’s case, so He is not limited to using men, and in this case Jewish men to speak to mankind…

See this:

The theological gap between Judaism and Christianity is not limited to the question: “Who is the Messiah,” or a debate over the translation of a few biblical verses. Judaism and Christianity are two different belief systems, differing over core issues such as the existential nature of man, the role of our relationship with God, and the path to genuine spiritual fulfillment.

Jews have held steadfast to their beliefs for thousands of years, amidst all forms of persecution and hardship. They have done so in the belief that the Jewish people – as bearers of God’s message of morality and justice – have a unique and crucial role to play in human history. As the prophet Isaiah predicts, this will become eminently clear when the Messiah, the King of Israel, arrives. May it be speedily in our day.

As if you don’t know Isaiah was a prophet

Don’t you think it is rather convenient that the Jews who wrote the Old Testament also declared themselves God’s chosen people? If a Kenyan wrote a Kenyan Bible, would he have declared Ugandans as God’s chosen people? Of course they declared themselves the chosen people.

What do I believe about Jesus? I think he existed but his virgin birth, miracles and ressurrection…aiyaya those things are difficult to verify. I think he was a scholar, @Soprano says he was a political activist. All we know about Jesus is contained in the Gospels written by…followers of Jesus. Can they be trusted to give an unbiased, accurate account about Jesus? Why did Jesus need to die for our sins? Nowhere in the OT did it say someone needed to die to clear our sins. God is God, if God wills our sins are forgiven, they would be forgiven. So why was Jesus’ sacrifice necessary? If Jesus was a man that was a human sacrifice.

If Jesus is God, why don’t we see any reference about the Trinity in the OT? Was Jesus the Messiah? If so how could he have had a virgin birth when the messiah was supposed to come from a paternal Davidic line? When did the messianic age that the messiah was supposed to bring start?

Anyway, whenever you read any interpretation of OT prophecy in the NT please also consider the jewish interpretation of the same prophecy coz if you refuse to do that you are basically only listening to one side of an argument…the Christian side.

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The scriptures in Jeremiah was prophesying the death of Jesus Christ

Ever read in the Bible about “The lamb that was slain before the foundation of the earth”?